A linguistic question (looking mainly at you thnidu, but there are other folks who might know, too)

[xiphias]

Elsejournal, a couple days ago, someone wrote a post which quoted Bishop John Shelby Spong: "The verb 'to be' is the key verb in every human language. We use it to describe that which is of our very essence."

The post was, and is, a lovely meditation on the nature of coming out, and the reactions to National Coming Out Day, but I objected to that quote, saying that plenty of languages lack a verb "to be".

So it started me wondering: do languages with an explicit verb "to be" fall into any specific clusters? Do some language families have them, and others lack them, or is it more scattershot?

Comments

[xiphias.livejournal.com]

Oh -- and as far as Esperanto goes: Esperanto started changing organically the minute it started being spoken, and Zamenhof wisely made absolutely no attempt to crack down on that and enforce a "Correct Esperanto." Other people did, of course, but they were ignored, and Esperanto has gone through a natural language evolution process, just like any other language.

[embryomystic.livejournal.com]

You're not wrong, but at the same time, a language being used by a bunch of self-conscious, literate adults, with minimal numbers of native speakers, is rather different from almost every language on the planet.