No; it was added in in modern Hebrew. I don't remember about Medieval Hebrew -- it may have gone in later. I feel that conlangs are part of reasonable linguistic discourse, since they DO experiment with what language is, but perhaps they're not part of THIS discussion, since I'm wondering about whether there are relationships among languages without copulas.

In any case, I consider modern Hebrew to be a conlang based on a natural language. As such, it has linguistic features from Germanic languages, since the primary language of the first speakers was largely Yiddish.